Unit 5: Cardiovascular System (CVS) pharmacy council

Prepare for Unit 5 with MCQs on the Cardiovascular System (CVS). Cover topics like heart anatomy, blood vessels, cardiac drugs, and common disorders to enhance your understanding and exam readiness.

  1. What is the main therapeutic use of ACE inhibitors like captopril?
  • A) Treatment of angina
  • B) Management of heart failure and hypertension
  • C) Reducing heart rate in arrhythmias
  • D) Treatment of hyperlipidemia
  • Answer: B
  1. Losartan is classified as which type of cardiovascular drug?
  • A) ACE inhibitor
  • B) Angiotensin receptor blocker
  • C) Beta-blocker
  • D) Calcium channel blocker
  • Answer: B
  1. Which drug is commonly used as a positive inotropic agent in heart failure?
  • A) Digoxin
  • B) Atenolol
  • C) Amlodipine
  • D) Furosemide
  • Answer: A
  1. The main mechanism of action of nitroglycerin in treating angina is:
  • A) Increasing heart rate
  • B) Vasodilation by releasing nitric oxide
  • C) Blocking calcium channels
  • D) Reducing preload and afterload
  • Answer: B
  1. Amiodarone is used for managing:
  • A) Hypertension
  • B) Heart failure
  • C) Bradycardia
  • D) Arrhythmias
  • Answer: D
  1. Beta-blockers like propranolol are contraindicated in:
  • A) Asthma
  • B) Heart failure
  • C) Hypertension
  • D) Arrhythmias
  • Answer: A
  1. The primary effect of diuretics in treating heart failure is to:
  • A) Reduce preload by increasing urine output
  • B) Increase heart rate
  • C) Enhance cardiac contractility
  • D) Lower blood glucose levels
  • Answer: A
  1. What is the action of calcium channel blockers like verapamil on the cardiovascular system?
  • A) Increase cardiac output
  • B) Lower blood pressure by vasodilation
  • C) Enhance sodium retention
  • D) Stimulate adrenergic receptors
  • Answer: B
  1. Which class of drugs is most effective in treating stable angina?
  • A) Beta-blockers
  • B) ACE inhibitors
  • C) Diuretics
  • D) Statins
  • Answer: A
  1. Which adverse effect is common with the use of ACE inhibitors?
    • A) Hyperkalemia
    • B) Bradycardia
    • C) Hyperglycemia
    • D) Reflex tachycardia
    • Answer: A
  2. Sodium nitroprusside is primarily used in which situation?
    • A) Chronic hypertension management
    • B) Emergency hypertensive crisis
    • C) Angina prevention
    • D) Heart failure management
    • Answer: B
  3. How do angiotensin receptor blockers like losartan reduce blood pressure?
    • A) Inhibiting renin release
    • B) Blocking angiotensin II receptors
    • C) Reducing sodium absorption
    • D) Increasing heart rate
    • Answer: B
  4. What is the primary therapeutic effect of digoxin in heart failure?
    • A) Decreasing heart rate
    • B) Increasing myocardial contractility
    • C) Lowering blood pressure
    • D) Reducing fluid retention
    • Answer: B
  5. Which of the following drugs is a direct vasodilator?
    • A) Propranolol
    • B) Sodium nitroprusside
    • C) Furosemide
    • D) Verapamil
    • Answer: B
  6. Calcium channel blockers are used in the treatment of:
    • A) Hypotension
    • B) Heart block
    • C) Hypertension and arrhythmias
    • D) Congestive heart failure
    • Answer: C
  7. Which class of drugs can worsen heart failure symptoms by causing fluid retention?
    • A) Calcium channel blockers
    • B) ACE inhibitors
    • C) Diuretics
    • D) Beta-blockers
    • Answer: A
  8. What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers in hypertension?
    • A) Reducing cardiac output
    • B) Increasing sodium excretion
    • C) Blocking aldosterone secretion
    • D) Dilating blood vessels
    • Answer: A
  9. Which medication is used as first-line treatment for acute angina attacks?
    • A) Verapamil
    • B) Nitroglycerin
    • C) Digoxin
    • D) Furosemide
    • Answer: B
  10. Amiodarone’s antiarrhythmic properties include:
    • A) Blocking sodium channels
    • B) Blocking potassium channels
    • C) Both A and B
    • D) Inhibiting beta receptors
    • Answer: C
  11. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy because they are:
    • A) Teratogenic
    • B) Hepatotoxic
    • C) Nephrotoxic
    • D) Neurotoxic
    • Answer: A
  12. Which of the following is an effect of propranolol on the heart?
    • A) Increased cardiac contractility
    • B) Decreased heart rate
    • C) Increased oxygen demand
    • D) Vasodilation
    • Answer: B
  13. Diuretics are commonly combined with antihypertensive drugs to:
    • A) Enhance sodium absorption
    • B) Increase fluid retention
    • C) Improve blood pressure control
    • D) Stimulate the sympathetic nervous system
    • Answer: C
  14. What is the primary goal of antianginal therapy?
    • A) Increase heart rate
    • B) Reduce myocardial oxygen demand
    • C) Enhance renal function
    • D) Lower blood pressure
    • Answer: B
  15. Which type of diuretic is most commonly used in the treatment of hypertension?
    • A) Loop diuretics
    • B) Potassium-sparing diuretics
    • C) Thiazide diuretics
    • D) Osmotic diuretics
    • Answer: C
  16. Which medication is used to treat arrhythmias by prolonging the action potential duration?
    • A) Furosemide
    • B) Amiodarone
    • C) Propranolol
    • D) Captopril
    • Answer: B
  17. ACE inhibitors help in heart failure by:
    • A) Increasing heart rate
    • B) Reducing blood pressure and afterload
    • C) Decreasing sodium excretion
    • D) Enhancing myocardial contractility
    • Answer: B
  18. What is the mechanism of action of statins in managing cardiovascular disease?
    • A) Reducing triglyceride absorption
    • B) Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
    • C) Increasing HDL cholesterol
    • D) Blocking bile acid reabsorption
    • Answer: B
  19. What type of drug is commonly used to manage atrial fibrillation?
    • A) Inotropic agents
    • B) Anticoagulants
    • C) Nitrates
    • D) Diuretics
    • Answer: B
  20. Which of the following can cause reflex tachycardia as a side effect?
    • A) ACE inhibitors
    • B) Calcium channel blockers
    • C) Beta-blockers
    • D) Diuretics
    • Answer: B
  21. Which antihypertensive agent also provides renal protection in diabetic patients?
    • A) Beta-blockers
    • B) ACE inhibitors
    • C) Calcium channel blockers
    • D) Diuretics
    • Answer: B
  22. Amiodarone is structurally related to which hormone?
    • A) Thyroxine
    • B) Insulin
    • C) Cortisol
    • D) Adrenaline
    • Answer: A
  23. Verapamil, as a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated in:
    • A) Hypertension
    • B) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
    • C) Stable angina
    • D) Supraventricular tachycardia
    • Answer: B
  24. Which agent is considered a first-line treatment for hypertension?
    • A) Furosemide
    • B) Thiazide diuretics
    • C) Amiodarone
    • D) Nitroglycerin
    • Answer: B
  25. For which cardiovascular condition are beta-blockers primarily used? – A) Hyperlipidemia B) Atrial fibrillation
    • C) Peripheral artery disease
    • D) Varicose veins
    • Answer: B
  26. Which electrolyte disturbance is a potential risk with diuretic therapy?
    • A) Hypercalcemia
    • B) Hypokalemia
    • C) Hypermagnesemia
    • D) Hyperphosphatemia
    • Answer: B
  27. What is the effect of digoxin on the heart?
    • A) Negative inotropy
    • B) Positive inotropy
    • C) Positive chronotropy
    • D) Negative dromotropy
    • Answer: B
  28. Angiotensin II receptor blockers can prevent which cardiovascular condition?
    • A) Hyperlipidemia
    • B) Myocardial infarction
    • C) Hypertension
    • D) Arrhythmias
    • Answer: C
  29. Which drug class is used for managing both hypertension and angina?
    • A) ACE inhibitors
    • B) Calcium channel blockers
    • C) Loop diuretics
    • D) Inotropic agents
    • Answer: B
  30. The drug spironolactone acts as a:
    • A) Calcium channel blocker
    • B) Potassium-sparing diuretic
    • C) ACE inhibitor
    • D) Vasodilator
    • Answer: B
  31. Beta-blockers decrease blood pressure by:
    • A) Increasing blood volume
    • B) Reducing cardiac output
    • C) Dilating blood vessels
    • D) Blocking sodium channels
    • Answer: B
  32. Hydralazine primarily acts as a:
    • A) Diuretic
    • B) Vasodilator
    • C) Beta-blocker
    • D) Calcium channel blocker
    • Answer: B
  33. Which condition is treated with lipid-lowering agents like statins?
    • A) Atrial fibrillation
    • B) Hypertension
    • C) Hyperlipidemia
    • D) Heart failure
    • Answer: C
  34. Clopidogrel is used to:
    • A) Lower blood pressure
    • B) Reduce platelet aggregation
    • C) Enhance myocardial contractility
    • D) Block calcium channels
    • Answer: B
  35. Which class of drugs can cause an increased risk of bradycardia?
    • A) ACE inhibitors
    • B) Beta-blockers
    • C) Diuretics
    • D) Nitrates
    • Answer: B
  36. The combination of ACE inhibitors and diuretics is commonly used for:
    • A) Increasing heart rate
    • B) Reducing blood pressure
    • C) Enhancing diuresis
    • D) Lowering cholesterol
    • Answer: B
  37. What is the therapeutic role of nitrates in angina?
    • A) Lowering heart rate
    • B) Reducing myocardial oxygen consumption
    • C) Increasing blood volume
    • D) Blocking sodium channels
    • Answer: B
  38. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is:
    • A) Constipation
    • B) Headache
    • C) Hyperglycemia
    • D) Bradycardia
    • Answer: B
  39. Which class of drugs is indicated for treating atrial fibrillation?
    • A) Inotropic agents
    • B) Anticoagulants
    • C) Statins
    • D) Vasodilators
    • Answer: B
  40. Amlodipine belongs to which class of cardiovascular drugs?
    • A) Beta-blockers
    • B) ACE inhibitors
    • C) Calcium channel blockers
    • D) Diuretics
    • Answer: C
  41. What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in heart failure?
    • A) Increasing heart rate
    • B) Reducing afterload
    • C) Blocking calcium channels
    • D) Increasing sodium reabsorption
    • Answer: B

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