Autonomous Nervous System MCQ-Pharmacology II

Prepare for Pharmacology II with MCQs on the Autonomous Nervous System (ANS). Explore key concepts, including sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, neurotransmitters, and drug actions for exam success.

MCQs on Unit 3: Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

  1. What type of neurons are responsible for carrying motor impulses from the CNS to the effector organs?
  • A) Sensory neurons
  • B) Motor neurons
  • C) Interneurons
  • D) Enteric neurons
  • Answer: B
  1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the parasympathetic nervous system?
  • A) Norepinephrine
  • B) Dopamine
  • C) Acetylcholine
  • D) Serotonin
  • Answer: C
  1. Preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system originate from which regions of the spinal cord?
  • A) Cervical and sacral
  • B) Thoracic and lumbar
  • C) Lumbar and sacral
  • D) Cranial and thoracic
  • Answer: B
  1. Which neurotransmitter is released by both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons?
  • A) Dopamine
  • B) Serotonin
  • C) Acetylcholine
  • D) Epinephrine
  • Answer: C
  1. In the ANS, what is the role of postganglionic neurons?
  • A) Conduct nerve impulses to the CNS
  • B) Relay signals within the ganglia
  • C) Transmit signals to effector organs
  • D) Provide feedback to preganglionic neurons
  • Answer: C
  1. The sympathetic nervous system mainly mediates which of the following responses?
  • A) Rest and digest
  • B) Fight or flight
  • C) Voluntary muscle movement
  • D) Hormone secretion
  • Answer: B
  1. What is a key effect of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?
  • A) Decreased heart rate
  • B) Increased heart rate
  • C) Decreased contractility
  • D) Vasodilation of coronary vessels
  • Answer: B
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation causes which of the following effects on the gastrointestinal tract?
  • A) Decreased motility
  • B) Increased secretion and motility
  • C) Relaxation of the sphincters
  • D) Contraction of the sphincters
  • Answer: B
  1. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine at the synapse?
  • A) Monoamine oxidase
  • B) Acetylcholinesterase
  • C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase
  • D) Adenosine triphosphatase
  • Answer: B
  1. Atropine, a muscarinic antagonist, causes which of the following effects?
    • A) Miosis
    • B) Bradycardia
    • C) Mydriasis
    • D) Increased saliva production
    • Answer: C
  2. What kind of receptor does norepinephrine primarily act on in the sympathetic nervous system?
    • A) Muscarinic receptors
    • B) Nicotinic receptors
    • C) Alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
    • D) Dopaminergic receptors
    • Answer: C
  3. Which drug is an example of a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
    • A) Succinylcholine
    • B) Tubocurarine
    • C) Epinephrine
    • D) Physostigmine
    • Answer: B
  4. What is the therapeutic use of pralidoxime in cases of organophosphate poisoning?
    • A) Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
    • B) Reverses the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
    • C) Blocks nicotinic receptors
    • D) Stimulates muscarinic receptors
    • Answer: B
  5. Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, are contraindicated in which condition?
    • A) Hypertension
    • B) Glaucoma
    • C) Asthma
    • D) Hyperthyroidism
    • Answer: C
  6. Which adrenergic receptor subtype is primarily responsible for vasoconstriction?
    • A) Alpha-1
    • B) Beta-1
    • C) Alpha-2
    • D) Beta-2
    • Answer: A
  7. Echothiophate is an example of what type of cholinergic drug?
    • A) Direct-acting agonist
    • B) Indirect-acting reversible inhibitor
    • C) Indirect-acting irreversible inhibitor
    • D) Cholinergic antagonist
    • Answer: C
  8. What effect does stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors have on the bronchioles?
    • A) Constriction
    • B) Dilation
    • C) Increased secretion
    • D) No effect
    • Answer: B
  9. What is the function of ganglionic blockers like mecamylamine?
    • A) Stimulate the release of acetylcholine
    • B) Block nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia
    • C) Inhibit acetylcholinesterase
    • D) Stimulate muscarinic receptors
    • Answer: B
  10. Which of the following is a major adverse effect associated with non-selective beta-blockers?
    • A) Hypotension
    • B) Hyperglycemia
    • C) Bronchoconstriction
    • D) Tachycardia
    • Answer: C
  11. Sympathomimetic drugs that act directly on adrenergic receptors include:
    • A) Epinephrine
    • B) Amphetamine
    • C) Cocaine
    • D) Reserpine
    • Answer: A
  12. The enteric nervous system primarily controls which bodily function?
    • A) Cardiac muscle contraction
    • B) Skeletal muscle movement
    • C) Gastrointestinal motility
    • D) Respiratory rate
    • Answer: C
  13. Which cholinergic drug is used during ophthalmic surgery to produce miosis?
    • A) Atropine
    • B) Acetylcholine
    • C) Physostigmine
    • D) Epinephrine
    • Answer: B
  14. The primary neurotransmitter at adrenergic synapses in the ANS is:
    • A) Acetylcholine
    • B) Norepinephrine
    • C) Dopamine
    • D) Serotonin
    • Answer: B
  15. The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems typically exhibit which type of interaction?
    • A) Synergistic
    • B) Antagonistic
    • C) Cooperative
    • D) Independent
    • Answer: B
  16. What action does the sympathetic nervous system have on the blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles?
    • A) Vasoconstriction
    • B) Vasodilation
    • C) No change
    • D) Inhibition of blood flow
    • Answer: B
  17. Which drug is used to treat myasthenia gravis by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase?
    • A) Atropine
    • B) Neostigmine
    • C) Succinylcholine
    • D) Propranolol
    • Answer: B
  18. Cholinergic antagonists generally cause which of the following effects on the bladder?
    • A) Increased contraction
    • B) Decreased tone and motility
    • C) Increased secretion
    • D) Stimulation of detrusor muscle
    • Answer: B
  19. Nicotinic receptors are found in all the following locations except:
    • A) Skeletal muscle
    • B) Autonomic ganglia
    • C) Cardiac muscle
    • D) Adrenal medulla
    • Answer: C
  20. Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors leads to:
    • A) Increased heart rate
    • B) Inhibition of norepinephrine release
    • C) Bronchodilation
    • D) Increased insulin secretion
    • Answer: B
  21. Which of the following drugs is a selective alpha-1 antagonist used for hypertension?
    • A) Propranolol
    • B) Prazosin
    • C) Epinephrine
    • D) Amphetamine
    • Answer: B

  1. Which neurotransmitter is released by sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
    • A) Acetylcholine
    • B) Dopamine
    • C) Norepinephrine
    • D) Serotonin
    • Answer: C
  2. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors are primarily located in:
    • A) Cardiac muscle
    • B) Smooth muscles of blood vessels
    • C) Bronchial tissue
    • D) Skeletal muscle
    • Answer: B
  3. Muscarinic receptors are primarily found in which part of the autonomic nervous system?
    • A) Sympathetic ganglia
    • B) Parasympathetic postganglionic effectors
    • C) Central nervous system
    • D) Neuromuscular junction
    • Answer: B
  4. Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors primarily results in:
    • A) Bronchoconstriction
    • B) Increased heart rate and contractility
    • C) Vasoconstriction
    • D) Decreased renin secretion
    • Answer: B
  5. Which drug is commonly used to treat glaucoma by reducing intraocular pressure?
    • A) Atropine
    • B) Timolol
    • C) Epinephrine
    • D) Succinylcholine
    • Answer: B
  6. Beta-2 adrenergic agonists are commonly used to treat:
    • A) Hypertension
    • B) Asthma
    • C) Bradycardia
    • D) Glaucoma
    • Answer: B
  7. What effect does blocking muscarinic receptors have on the gastrointestinal tract?
    • A) Increases motility
    • B) Decreases motility
    • C) Increases secretions
    • D) Causes miosis
    • Answer: B
  8. Which adrenergic receptor subtype is involved in increasing lipolysis in adipose tissue?
    • A) Alpha-1
    • B) Alpha-2
    • C) Beta-1
    • D) Beta-3
    • Answer: D
  9. In cases of anaphylactic shock, which drug is commonly administered?
    • A) Atropine
    • B) Epinephrine
    • C) Propranolol
    • D) Neostigmine
    • Answer: B
  10. What is the main action of reserpine on the autonomic nervous system?
    • A) Stimulates beta receptors
    • B) Inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine
    • C) Depletes catecholamines from nerve endings
    • D) Blocks muscarinic receptors
    • Answer: C
  11. Alpha-2 agonists are sometimes used for their ability to:
    • A) Increase blood pressure
    • B) Decrease sympathetic outflow from the CNS
    • C) Stimulate skeletal muscle
    • D) Enhance bronchodilation
    • Answer: B
  12. Which receptor type mediates the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart?
    • A) Beta-1
    • B) Nicotinic
    • C) Alpha-1
    • D) Muscarinic
    • Answer: D
  13. Dopaminergic receptors in the ANS are primarily involved in regulating:
    • A) Gastrointestinal motility
    • B) Cardiac output
    • C) Renal blood flow
    • D) Bronchial tone
    • Answer: C
  14. Which of the following drugs is used to reverse neuromuscular blockade caused by non-depolarizing agents?
    • A) Neostigmine
    • B) Atropine
    • C) Epinephrine
    • D) Dopamine
    • Answer: A
  15. The drug dobutamine is primarily used to treat:
    • A) Bronchospasm
    • B) Bradycardia
    • C) Acute heart failure
    • D) Hypertension
    • Answer: C
  16. Which receptor subtype is targeted to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
    • A) Alpha-1A
    • B) Beta-1
    • C) Beta-2
    • D) Alpha-2
    • Answer: A
  17. Which adrenergic agonist is known for its ability to cause vasodilation in skeletal muscle vasculature?
    • A) Norepinephrine
    • B) Epinephrine
    • C) Dopamine
    • D) Phenylephrine
    • Answer: B
  18. Beta-1 selective blockers are particularly useful in treating:
    • A) Bronchoconstriction
    • B) Hypertension and angina
    • C) Peripheral vasodilation
    • D) Tachycardia caused by asthma
    • Answer: B
  19. What is the effect of stimulating alpha-1 receptors in the eye?
    • A) Miosis
    • B) Mydriasis
    • C) Decreased intraocular pressure
    • D) Blurred vision
    • Answer: B
  20. Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for the transmission of impulses in autonomic ganglia?
    • A) Acetylcholine
    • B) Dopamine
    • C) Norepinephrine
    • D) Epinephrine
    • Answer: A