uhs entry test solved

Access the solved 2010 UHS entry past paper 2010 with answers. Perfect for MDCAT preparation, enhance your understanding and boost your exam success with EverExams.com!

Get detailed explanations, expert solutions, and valuable insights to strengthen your concepts and excel in your medical entry test. Visit EverExams.com for more solved papers and study resources.”

Physics MCQs

1. Which one is the highest power multiple?

• (A) Giga
• (B) Mega
• (C) Tera
• (D) Deca
  Answer: (C) Tera

1. SI unit of charge is:

• (A) Ampere
• (B) Coulomb
• (C) Volt
• (D) Calorie
  Answer: (B) Coulomb

1. The electrical analog of mass in electricity is:

• (A) Capacitance
• (B) Charge
• (C) Inductance
• (D) Resistance
  Answer: (C) Inductance

1. Which one of the following relations is correct?

• (A) 1 wb m⁻² = N m⁻¹ A⁻¹
• (B) 1 wb m⁻² = 1 Tesla
• (C) 1 Tesla = 10⁴ Gausses
• (D) All of these
  Answer: (D) All of these

1. Lifetime of an electron in a metastable state is about:

• (A) 10⁻⁵ sec
• (B) 10⁻⁸ sec
• (C) 10⁻³ sec
• (D) 10⁻² sec
  Answer: (A) 10⁻⁵ sec

1. The torque acting on a current-carrying coil is given by:

• (A) τ = NIAB cos α
• (B) τ = NIAB sin α
• (C) τ = BIL sin α
• (D) τ = BIL cos α
  Answer: (B) τ = NIAB sin α

1. The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope:

• (A) Controls the number of waves
• (B) Accelerates electrons
• (C) Controls the brightness of the spot formed
• (D) Has positive potential with respect to the cathode
  Answer: (C) Controls the brightness of the spot formed

1. The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by:

• (A) The angle of projection
• (B) The mass of the projectile
• (C) The initial velocity of projection
• (D) Speed and mass of the projectile
  Answer: (C) The initial velocity of projection

1. If velocity is doubled, then:

• (A) Momentum increases 4 times, and K.E. increases 2 times
• (B) Momentum and K.E. remain the same
• (C) Momentum increases 2 times, and K.E. increases constantly
• (D) Momentum increases 2 times, and K.E. increases 4 times
  Answer: (D) Momentum increases 2 times, and K.E. increases 4 times

1. The consumption of energy by a 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:
   • (A) 20 J
   • (B) 30 J
   • (C) 120 J
   • (D) 0.02 J
     Answer: (C) 120 J
2. In transistors, the base region is very thin, of the order of:
   • (A) 10⁻⁵ cm
   • (B) 10⁻⁶ mm
   • (C) 10⁻⁶ m
   • (D) 10⁻⁶ µm
     Answer: (A) 10⁻⁵ cm
3. The closed-loop gain of an OP-AMP depends on:
   • (A) Internal structure of the OP-AMP
   • (B) Voltage of power supplies
   • (C) Externally connected resistances
   • (D) Input resistance
     Answer: (C) Externally connected resistances
4. The net charge on an N-type substance is:
   • (A) 0.7 volts
   • (B) 0.25 volts
   • (C) 0.3 volts
   • (D) 0.07 volts
     Answer: (A) 0.7 volts
5. The value of Wien’s constant is:
   • (A) 2.90 × 10⁻³ mK
   • (B) 4.22 × 10⁻⁷ mK
   • (C) 3.34 × 10⁻⁴ mK
   • (D) 3.42 × 10⁻⁸ mK
     Answer: (A) 2.90 × 10⁻³ mK
6. The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called:
   • (A) High frequency
   • (B) Threshold frequency
   • (C) Low frequency
   • (D) Resonance frequency
     Answer: (B) Threshold frequency
7. In pair production, the type of photon used is:
   • (A) α-particle
   • (B) X-rays
   • (C) β-particle
   • (D) γ-radiations
     Answer: (D) γ-radiations
8. The lifetime of an electron in an excited state is about 10⁻⁸ s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?
   • (A) 1.05 × 10⁻⁴¹ J
   • (B) 1.15 × 10¹⁰ J
   • (C) 1.05 × 10⁻²⁶ J
   • (D) 2.19 × 10⁻⁴⁰ J
     Answer: (C) 1.05 × 10⁻²⁶ J
9. Velocity of an electron moving in the first orbit of hydrogen is:
   • (A) 2.19 × 10⁷ m/s
   • (B) 2.2 × 10⁸ m/s
   • (C) 2.18 × 10⁷ m/s
   • (D) 2.19 × 10⁶ m/s
     Answer: (A) 2.19 × 10⁷ m/s
10. LASER is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?
    • (A) Radioactive
    • (B) Ionization
    • (C) Fission
    • (D) Fusion
      Answer: (D) Fusion
11. In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by:
    • (A) ΔN ∝ -NΔt
    • (B) ΔN ∝ -nΔt
    • (C) ΔN = KNΔt
    • (D) ΔN = -ΔNΔt
      Answer: (A) ΔN ∝ -NΔt
12. Decay constant ‘λ’ is given as:
    • (A) -ΔN/Δt
    • (B) Δt/ΔN
    • (C) ΔN/NΔt
    • (D) -ΔN/NΔt
      Answer: (D) -ΔN/NΔt
13. The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e., radiation effect, is Gray, and one Gray is equal to:
    • (A) kJ/mol
    • (B) kg/J
    • (C) J/mol
    • (D) J/kg
      Answer: (D) J/kg
14. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines:
    • (A) Only variable in the equation
    • (B) Correctness of an equation
    • (C) Only constant in the equation
    • (D) Constant and variable in the equation
      Answer: (B) Correctness of an equation
15. For a body to be in complete equilibrium:
    • (A) Linear acceleration is zero
    • (B) Angular acceleration is zero
    • (C) Linear acceleration is zero, but angular acceleration is not zero
    • (D) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero
      Answer: (D) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero
16. If the length of a spanner is ‘l’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is:
    • (A) Zero
    • (B) F*l sin θ
    • (C) F*f
    • (D) Fl sin θλ Answer: (B) Fl sin θ
17. **If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in a direction making an angle of 30°, its x and y components will be:**
    • (A) Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
    • (B) Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
    • (C) Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
    • (D) Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4
      Answer: (B) Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
18. The difference of a vector ¯B and its negative vector -B is:
    • (A) A null vector
    • (B) Twice the magnitude of vector ¯B¯
    • (C) Equal to the magnitude of vector ¯B¯
    • (D) Smaller than the magnitude of vector ¯B¯
      Answer: (B) Twice the magnitude of vector ¯B¯
19. Time of projectile’s flight is:
    • (A) vi² sin² θ/g
    • (B) vi² sin θ /g
    • (C) 2 vi sin θ/g
    • (D) vi sin 2θ/g
      Answer: (C) 2 vi sin θ/g
20. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:
    • (A) Variable acceleration
    • (B) Uniform velocity
    • (C) Uniform acceleration
    • (D) Negative acceleration
      Answer: (C) Uniform acceleration
21. In order to determine the maximum height of the projectile, the equation of motion used is:
    • (A) aS = v² – v₀²
    • (B) 2S = a(v² – v₀²)
    • (C) 2aS = v² – v₀²
    • (D) aS = 2(v² – v₀²)
      Answer: (C) 2aS = v² – v₀²

31. If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kg·m/s to 60 kg·m/s, the time during which this change occurs will be:

• (A) 24 sec
• (B) 12 sec
• (C) 2 sec
• (D) 8 sec
  Answer: (C) 2 sec

31. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

• (A) Electric force
• (B) Gravitational force
• (C) Elastic spring force
• (D) Frictional force
  Answer: (D) Frictional force

31. Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/s. Its value for the surface of the moon is:

• (A) 11 km/s
• (B) 2.4 km/s
• (C) 10.4 km/s
• (D) 4.3 km/s
  Answer: (B) 2.4 km/s

31. On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about:

• (A) 1.0 kW·m⁻²
• (B) 1.0 W·m⁻²
• (C) 1.4 kW·m⁻²
• (D) 1.4 W·m⁻²
  Answer: (C) 1.4 kW·m⁻²

31. When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be:

• (A) Equal to its real weight
• (B) Zero
• (C) Less than its real weight
• (D) Greater than its real weight
  Answer: (D) Greater than its real weight

31. The moment of inertia of a thin rod is:

• (A) 1/2 ML₂
• (B) ( mL^2 )
• (C) ( \frac{1}{12} mL^2 )
• (D) ( \frac{1}{4} mL^2 )
  Answer: (C) ( \frac{1}{12} mL^2 )

31. A wheel of radius 1 m covers an angular displacement of 180°. Its linear displacement is:

• (A) 3.14 m
• (B) 6.28 m
• (C) π rad
• (D) 0.157 m
  Answer: (A) 3.14 m

31. Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to:

• (A) Bernoulli’s equation
• (B) Equation of motion
• (C) Venturi meter
• (D) Equation of continuity
  Answer: (D) Equation of continuity

31. The blood vessels collapse when:

• (A) External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure
• (B) External pressure applied is equal to the systolic pressure
• (C) External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
• (D) External pressure applied is zero
  Answer: (A) External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure

31. An oscillating body is at the mean position at ( t = 0 ). At ( t = T/4 ), it will be at:

• (A) Extreme position
• (B) Between extreme and mean position
• (C) Mean position
• (D) Beyond extreme position
  Answer: (A) Extreme position

31. In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is:

• (A) ( g \cos \theta )
• (B) ( mg \cos \theta )
• (C) ( mg \sin \theta )
• (D) ( mg )
  Answer: (B) ( mg \cos \theta )

31. Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction and are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is:

• (A) Zero amplitude
• (B) Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
• (C) The sum of amplitudes of the two waves
• (D) Double the amplitude of either wave
  Answer: (B) Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves

31. A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a source of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is:

• (A) 244 Hz
• (B) 248 Hz
• (C) 236 Hz
• (D) 246 Hz
  Answer: (D) 246 Hz

31. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is:

• (A) 25 cm
• (B) 100 cm
• (C) 50 cm
• (D) 75 cm
  Answer: (B) 100 cm

31. In the Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path difference introduced is:

• (A) λ/4
• (B) λ
• (C) λ/2
• (D) λ/3
  Answer: (C) ( λ/2 )

31. The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is:

• (A) ( (m + \frac{1}{2}) \lambda )
• (B) ( d \sin \theta )
• (C) ( m \lambda )
• (D) ( 3 \lambda )
  Answer: (A) ( (m + \frac{1}{2}) \lambda )

31. In the case of a grating spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as:

• (A) λ/ Delta λ
• (B) λ /λ1
• (C) λ / D
• (D) N x m
  Answer: (A)

31. Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?

• (A) Visible light
• (B) Ordinary light
• (C) Ultraviolet light
• (D) Invisible infrared light
  Answer: (D) Invisible infrared light

31. The value of the universal gas constant is:

• (A) ( 8.314 \, \text{J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹} )
• (B) ( 7.23 \, \text{J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹} )
• (C) ( 8.324 \, \text{J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹} )
• (D) ( 1.00 \, \text{J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹} )
  Answer: (A) ( 8.314 \, \text{J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹} )

31. The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427°C and exhausts into a low-temperature reservoir at 77°C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

• (A) 50%
• (B) 60%
• (C) 40%
• (D) 70%
  Answer: (B) 60%

31. Which one of the following is a postulate of the kinetic theory of gases?

• (A) Molecules do not exert force on each other
• (B) The size of molecules is much larger than the separation between the molecules
• (C) A finite volume of gas consists of very few molecules
• (D) Gas molecules are not in random motion
  Answer: (A) Molecules do not exert force on each other

31. Which one is not an irreversible process?

• (A) Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder
• (B) Explosion
• (C) Changes due to friction
• (D) Dissipation of energy
  Answer: (A) Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder

31. Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is:

• (A) Perpendicular to the direction of the field
• (B) At a certain angle
• (C) Opposite to the direction of force
• (D) Along the direction of force
  Answer: (D) Along the direction of force

31. The magnitude of an electric field between two separated plates can be calculated by the relation:

• (A) ( \Delta V = Ed )
• (B) ( \Delta V = E/d )
• (C) ( \Delta V = E \cdot d )
• (D) ( E = \Delta V \cdot d )
  Answer: (A) ( \Delta V = Ed )

31. SI unit of electric flux is:

• (A) Nm·C⁻¹
• (B) Nm²·C⁻²
• (C) Nm⁻²·C⁻²
• (D) Nm²·C⁻¹
  Answer: (D) Nm²·C⁻¹

31. The equivalent current that passes from a higher potential to a lower potential point, as if it represented a movement of positive charges, is:

• (A) Electronic current
• (B) Magnetic lines
• (C) Electric current
• (D) Conventional current
  Answer: (D) Conventional current

31. If ‘V’ is the applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, the loss in potential energy per unit time is:

• (A) ( VI )
• (B) ( \frac{V^2}{R} )
• (C) ( I^2R )
• (D) All of the above
  Answer: (D) All of the above

31. The substances like germanium and silicon have:

• (A) Negative temperature coefficients
• (B) Both A and B
• (C) Positive temperature coefficients
• (D) None of the above
  Answer: (A) Negative temperature coefficients

31. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by:

• (A) Increasing the magnetic field
• (B) Increasing BAN ratio
• (C) Increasing the number of turns of the coil
• (D) Decreasing the length of couple ‘c’
  Answer: (A) Increasing the magnetic field

31. Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is:

• (A) ( F = NIA \cos \alpha )
• (B) ( F = ILB \sin \alpha )
• (C) ( F = \mu nI )
• (D) ( F = ILA \cos \alpha )
  Answer: (B) ( F = ILB \sin \alpha )

Chemistry

61. In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:

• (A) pH scale
• (B) Hydrogen scale
• (C) pOH scale
• (D) pKa scale
  Answer: (B) Hydrogen scale

61. The reaction responsible for the production of electricity in a Voltaic cell is:

• (A) Hydrolysis reaction
• (B) Redox reaction
• (C) Oxidation reaction
• (D) Reduction reaction
  Answer: (B) Redox reaction

61. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme present in yeast:

• (A) Urease
• (B) Sucrase
• (C) Invertase
• (D) Zymase
  Answer: (D) Zymase

61. The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by the method:

• (A) Dilatometric
• (B) Optical rotation
• (C) Refractometric
• (D) Electrical conductivity
  Answer: (D) Electrical conductivity

61. When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions are dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute solution, the amount of heat liberated is:

• (A) -1891 kJ/mol
• (B) -499 kJ/mol
• (C) -1075 kJ/mol
• (D) -1562 kJ/mol
  Answer: (C) -1075 kJ/mol

61. Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in the ground state is called:

• (A) Electron affinity
• (B) Ionization energy
• (C) Lattice energy
• (D) Crystal energy
  Answer: (B) Ionization energy

61. Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable toward heat and is decomposed on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO₂?

• (A) Li₂CO₃
• (B) K₂CO₃
• (C) Mg₂CO₃
• (D) Na₂CO₃
  Answer: (A) Li₂CO₃

61. The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?

• (A) Leaves
• (B) Root hairs
• (C) Fruits
• (D) Branches
  Answer: (B) Root hairs

61. Which of the following sulfates is not soluble in water?

• (A) Sodium sulfate
• (B) Potassium sulfate
• (C) Barium sulfate
• (D) Zinc sulfate
  Answer: (C) Barium sulfate

61. The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the periodic table is:

• (A) A gradual increase
• (B) First decrease, then increase
• (C) A gradual decrease
• (D) First increase, then decrease
  Answer: (B) First decrease, then increase

61. White lead has one of the following properties:

• (A) Acidic
• (B) Amorphous
• (C) Crystalline
• (D) Neutral
  Answer: (C) Crystalline

61. The strongest acid among the following is:

• (A) HF
• (B) HCl
• (C) HI
• (D) HBr
  Answer: (C) HI

61. The noble gas used in radiotherapy of cancer is:

• (A) Radon
• (B) Krypton
• (C) Xenon
• (D) Argon
  Answer: (A) Radon

61. Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion, or molecule is due to the presence of:

• (A) Unpaired electrons
• (B) Protons
• (C) Paired electrons
• (D) Neutrons
  Answer: (A) Unpaired electrons

61. The geometry of complexes depends upon the type of _ taking place in the valence shell of the central metal atom:

• (A) Hybridization
• (B) Deprotonation
• (C) Protonation
• (D) Dissociation
  Answer: (A) Hybridization

61. KMnO₄ acts as a:

• (A) Reducing agent
• (B) Germicide
• (C) Excellent precipitating reagent
• (D) Oxidizing agent
  Answer: (D) Oxidizing agent

61. Gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by:

• (A) Oxidative cleavage
• (B) Catalytic cracking
• (C) Thermal cracking
• (D) Steam cracking
  Answer: (B) Catalytic cracking

61. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms join together to form a sigma bond by:

• (A) sp-s overlap
• (B) 2py-2py overlap
• (C) sp³-sp³ overlap
• (D) sp-sp overlap
  Answer: (D) sp-sp overlap

61. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:

• (A) Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
• (B) Reduction Reaction
• (C) Hydrogenolysis Reaction
• (D) Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction
  Answer: (D) Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction

61. The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is:

• (A) Cu₂Cl₂ and NH₄Cl
• (B) Cu₂Cl₂ and NH₄OH
• (C) Al₂O₃ and NH₄Cl
• (D) Cu₂Cl₂ and Al₂O₃
  Answer: (D) Cu₂Cl₂ and Al₂O₃

61. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:

• (A) Alkyl group
• (B) Benzyl group
• (C) Phenyl group
• (D) Methyl group
  Answer: (C) Phenyl group

61. The introduction of an NO₂ group into a benzene ring is called nitration. The nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of _ at 50°C-55°C:

• (A) Conc. HNO₃ and conc. HCl
• (B) Conc. HNO₃ and H₃PO₄
• (C) Conc. HNO₃ and conc. Acetic acid
• (D) Conc. HNO₃ and conc. H₂SO₄
  Answer: (D) Conc. HNO₃ and conc. H₂SO₄

61. During SN2 reactions, the configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

• (A) Gets inverted
• (B) Depends upon the carbon atom
• (C) Remains the same
• (D) Depends upon the electronegativity of the halide
  Answer: (A) Gets inverted

61. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

• (A) Dry ether
• (B) Alcohol
• (C) Sodium-lead alloy
• (D) Water
  Answer: (A) Dry ether

61. Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is:

• (A) ZnO + CoO₂
• (B) ZnO + Ag₂O
• (C) ZnO + CuO
• (D) Cr₂O₃ + ZnO
  Answer: (C) ZnO + CuO

61. Ethanol reacts with ammonia to produce ethylamine. The catalyst used is:

• (A) ZnCl₂
• (B) C₆H₅N
• (C) ThO₂
• (D) Cr₂O₃
  Answer: (A) ZnCl₂

61. Dissociation constant of phenol is:

• (A) ( 1.2 \times 10^{-10} )
• (B) ( 1.3 \times 10^{10} )
• (C) ( 1.2 \times 10^{10} )
• (D) ( 1.3 \times 10^{-10} )
  Answer: (A) ( 1.2 \times 10^{-10} )

61. **Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results in the formation of:**

• (A) Formaldehyde
• (B) Calcium acetate
• (C) Acetaldehyde
• (D) Sodium acetate
  Answer: (C) Acetaldehyde

61. Hydrolysis of the cyano group by an aqueous acid results in:

• (A) Carboxylic acid
• (B) Cyanohydride
• (C) Acid amide
• (D) Formaldehyde
  Answer: (A) Carboxylic acid

61. Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:

• (A) Sodium borohydride
• (B) Sodium nitroprusside
• (C) Sodium bisulfite
• (D) Fehling’s solution
  Answer: (D) Fehling’s solution

Chemistry MCQs (91–120)

91. The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is:

• (A) Neutral
• (B) Amphoteric
• (C) Acidic
• (D) Basic
  Answer: (D) Basic

91. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, reacts with sodium carbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas?

• (A) H₃C-COO-C₂H₅
• (B) H₃C₂-CO-OH
• (C) H₃C₂-COO-CH₃
• (D) H₃C₂-COO-C₂H₅
  Answer: (B) H₃C₂-CO-OH

91. Collagen and albumin are:

• (A) Simple proteins
• (B) Polyamides
• (C) Derived proteins
• (D) Polysaccharides
  Answer: (A) Simple proteins

91. Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with:

• (A) CO₂
• (B) CaO
• (C) CO
• (D) C
  Answer: (A) CO₂

91. The calcium sulpho-aluminate is:

• (A) Co.Al₂O₃.3CaSO₄.6H₂O
• (B) 3Ca.Al₂O₃.3CaSO₄.2H₂O
• (C) 3Ca.Al₂O₃.CaSO₄.2H₂O
• (D) 3Ca.Al₂O₃.3CaSO₄.6H₂O
  Answer: (D) 3Ca.Al₂O₃.3CaSO₄.6H₂O

91. The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:

• (A) Caustic soda
• (B) Alum
• (C) Lime water
• (D) Soda ash
  Answer: (B) Alum

91. The whiteness of recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:

• (A) Sodium hydroxide
• (B) Superoxides
• (C) Peroxides
• (D) Normal oxides
  Answer: (C) Peroxides

91. One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of:

• (A) 20.414 dm³
• (B) 22.414 cm³
• (C) 22.414 dm³
• (D) 23.414 dm³
  Answer: (C) 22.414 dm³

91. The relative abundance of isotopes of elements can be determined by:

• (A) Mass spectrometry
• (B) Chromatography
• (C) X-rays
• (D) Solvent extraction
  Answer: (A) Mass spectrometry

91. If given the mass of one substance, we can calculate the volume of another substance and vice versa with the help of a balanced chemical equation. This is called:

• (A) Mass-mass relationship
• (B) Mole-volume relationship
• (C) Mass-mole relationship
• (D) Mass-volume relationship
  Answer: (D) Mass-volume relationship

91. Sublimation is used to purify:

• (A) Ammonium sulfate
• (B) Benzoic acid
• (C) Sodium chloride
• (D) Lead carbonate
  Answer: (B) Benzoic acid

91. The purity of a substance can be identified by:

• (A) Sublimation
• (B) Chromatography
• (C) Filtration
• (D) Solvent extraction
  Answer: (B) Chromatography

91. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents Avogadro’s law?

• (A) ( V = RnT/P ) (when T and n are constant)
• (B) ( V = RnT ) (when P and n are constant)
• (C) ( V = Rn/P ) (when P, T, and n are constant)
• (D) ( V = R ) (when P and T are constant)
  Answer: (A) ( V = RnT/P )

91. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

• (A) Molar mass
• (B) Pressure
• (C) Temperature
• (D) Volume
  Answer: (A) Molar mass

91. Plasma is an ionized gas mixture that consists of:

• (A) Ions and electrons
• (B) Electrons, ions, and neutral atoms
• (C) Electrons and neutral atoms
• (D) Ions and neutral atoms
  Answer: (B) Electrons, ions, and neutral atoms

91. Which type of force is present in gasoline?

• (A) Dipole-dipole forces
• (B) London dispersion forces
• (C) Dipole-induced dipole forces
• (D) Hydrogen bonding
  Answer: (B) London dispersion forces

91. In the structure of NaCl, each Na⁺ is surrounded by:

• (A) Four Cl⁻ ions
• (B) Five Cl⁻ ions
• (C) Eight Cl⁻ ions
• (D) Six Cl⁻ ions
  Answer: (D) Six Cl⁻ ions

91. The charge of one gram of electrons is:

• (A) ( 1.7588 \times 10^{-11} )
• (B) ( 1.602 \times 10^{-19} )
• (C) ( 1.7588 \times 10^{11} )
• (D) ( 1.7588 \times 10^8 )
  Answer: (A) ( 1.7588 \times 10^{-11} )

91. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is:

• (A) Zero
• (B) ( 1313.31 \, \text{kJ/mol} )
• (C) ( 13.13 \, \text{kJ/mol} )
• (D) ( 1313.31 \, \text{k}^2 \text{J/mol} )
  Answer: (B) ( 1313.31 \, \text{kJ/mol} )

91. Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?

• (A) Principal Quantum Number
• (B) Magnetic Quantum Number
• (C) Spin Quantum Number
• (D) Azimuthal Quantum Number
  Answer: (B) Magnetic Quantum Number

91. The interionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is:

• (A) 314 pm
• (B) 95 pm
• (C) 181 pm
• (D) 300 pm
  Answer: (C) 181 pm

91. The number of bonds in a nitrogen molecule is:

• (A) One ( \sigma ) and two ( \pi )
• (B) Three ( \sigma ) only
• (C) One ( \sigma ) and one ( \pi )
• (D) Two ( \sigma ) and one ( \pi )
  Answer: (A) One ( \sigma ) and two ( \pi )

91. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

• (A) NH₃
• (B) BF₃
• (C) CHCl₃
• (D) H₂O
  Answer: (B) BF₃

91. A spontaneous process is:

• (A) Unidirectional and irreversible
• (B) Unidirectional and a real process
• (C) Irreversible and a real process
• (D) All of the above
  Answer: (D) All of the above

91. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH₄Cl is:

• (A) ( +16.2 \, \text{kJ/mol} )
• (B) ( +4.98 \, \text{kJ/mol} )
• (C) ( -25.0 \, \text{kJ/mol} )
• (D) ( +26.0 \, \text{kJ/mol} )
  Answer: (A) ( +16.2 \, \text{kJ/mol} )

116

. The ( K_c ) has the following units for the reaction ( H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇋ 2HI(g) ):

• (A) ( \text{mol}^3 \text{dm}^{-6} )
• (B) ( \text{mol}^{-3} \text{dm}^6 )
• (C) ( \text{mol} \text{dm}^{-3} )
• (D) No unit
  Answer: (D) No unit

1. 0.1 mole of acetic acid has been dissolved per dm³ of solution. The percentage ionization of acetic acid will be:

• (A) 13
• (B) 1.3
• (C) 15
• (D) 0.1
  Answer: (B) 1.3

1. Solubility of ( Ce_2(SO₄)_3 ):

• (A) Increases with temperature
• (B) Shows exceptional behavior
• (C) Decreases with temperature
• (D) Remains constant
  Answer: (C) Decreases with temperature

1. Seawater has ( 5.65 \times 10^{-3} \, g ) of dissolved oxygen in one kilogram of water. Concentration of ( O_2 ) in parts per million is:

• (A) 5.65
• (B) 5.20
• (C) 7.69
• (D) 4.11
  Answer: (A) 5.65

1. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of _ throughout the metallic lattice:

• (A) Atoms
• (B) Electrons
• (C) Molecules
• (D) Ions
  Answer: (B) Electrons

Biology MCQs (121–150)

121. Which of the following receptors produce a sensation of pain?

• (A) Mechanoreceptors
• (B) Chemoreceptors
• (C) Nociceptors
• (D) Thermoreceptors
  Answer: (C) Nociceptors

121. When your finger accidentally gets caught in a door, the pain message is sent to your brain through:

• (A) Homeostasis
• (B) Caffeine
• (C) Sensory receptors
• (D) The medulla
  Answer: (C) Sensory receptors

121. The neck has _ type of joint:

• (A) Ball and socket
• (B) Hinge
• (C) Pivot
• (D) Fibrous
  Answer: (C) Pivot

121. The end product of hemoglobin breakdown is:

• (A) Creatinine
• (B) Hypoxanthin
• (C) Bilirubin
• (D) Xanthin
  Answer: (C) Bilirubin

121. In what direction can DNA polymerase work when catalyzing the addition of nucleotide monomers to build a strand of DNA?

• (A) From the 5′ toward the 3′ end of the new strand being assembled
• (B) From replication centers in two directions called replication forks
• (C) From the 3′ to the 5′ end of the strand being assembled
• (D) In both directions if DNA ligase is present
  Answer: (A) From the 5′ toward the 3′ end of the new strand being assembled

121. Which bond is the potential source of chemical energy for cellular activities?

• (A) C-N
• (B) C-H
• (C) C-O
• (D) H-O
  Answer: (B) C-H

121. Sharks and rays are included in the class:

• (A) Cyclostomata
• (B) Osteichthyes
• (C) Chondrichthyes
• (D) Tetrapoda
  Answer: (C) Chondrichthyes

121. In what stage of aerobic respiration are 2-carbon molecules oxidized completely to carbon dioxide?

• (A) Glycolysis
• (B) Krebs cycle
• (C) ETC
• (D) Calvin cycle
  Answer: (B) Krebs cycle

121. Which of the following does not have specialized respiratory organs?

• (A) Hydra
• (B) Cockroach
• (C) Birds
• (D) Both A and B
  Answer: (A) Hydra

121. Hummingbirds belong to the category:

• (A) Heterotherms
• (B) Ectotherms
• (C) Endotherms
• (D) None of these
  Answer: (C) Endotherms

121. Syphilis is caused by:

• (A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
• (B) Treponema pallidum
• (C) Cats worm
• (D) Herpes simplex
  Answer: (B) Treponema pallidum

121. In moths, males are:

• (A) Heterogametic
• (B) Homogametic
• (C) Dieogametic
• (D) Both B and C
  Answer: (A) Heterogametic

121. When carbon dioxide pressure increases, the capacity of hemoglobin to hold oxygen:

• (A) Increases many folds
• (B) Remains constant
• (C) Decreases
• (D) Is doubled
  Answer: (C) Decreases

121. The soluble part of the cytoplasm is termed as:

• (A) Cisternae
• (B) Endocytosis
• (C) Cytosol
• (D) Both A and B
  Answer: (C) Cytosol

121. Name the enveloped RNA virus that causes infusion hepatitis:

• (A) HBV
• (B) HCV
• (C) HAV
• (D) None of these
  Answer: (B) HCV

121. In general, asexual reproduction is common in:

• (A) Humans
• (B) Deuteromycota
• (C) Basidiomycota
• (D) Basidiospores
  Answer: (B) Deuteromycota

121. Name the vertebrates that are without jaws:

• (A) Osteichthyes
• (B) Chondrichthyes
• (C) Cyclostomata
• (D) None of these
  Answer: (C) Cyclostomata

121. The total inside capacity of lungs of adult humans when fully inflated is:

• (A) 5 ml
• (B) 500 ml
• (C) 50 ml
• (D) 5000 ml
  Answer: (D) 5000 ml

121. Which of the following belong to collenchyma cells?

• (A) Fibers
• (B) Sclereids
• (C) Vessels
• (D) None of these
  Answer: (A) Fibers

121. Which of the following promotes both leaf and fruit growth?

• (A) Auxins
• (B) Abscisic acid
• (C) Gibberellins
• (D) Ethane
  Answer: (C) Gibberellins

121. Name the external factor of growth in plants:

• (A) Carbon dioxide
• (B) Hormones
• (C) Water
• (D) Nutrition
  Answer: (C) Water

121. The genes of blue opsin are present on:

• (A) Autosome 9
• (B) Autosome 1
• (C) Autosome 7
• (D) Autosome 3
  Answer: (C) Autosome 7

121. The dew drops on the tips of grass leaves are an example of:

• (A) Infestation
• (B) Exudation
• (C) Bleeding
• (D) Imbibition
  Answer: (B) Exudation

121. Which of the following modifies proteins and lipids by adding carbohydrates?

• (A) Golgi apparatus
• (B) Plasma membrane
• (C) Polysome
• (D) None of these
  Answer: (A) Golgi apparatus

121. Which of the following are spiral-shaped bacteria?

• (A) Cocci
• (B) Pseudomonas
• (C) Bacilli
• (D) Vibrio
  Answer: (D) Vibrio

121. Which of the following is used for lowering blood cholesterol?

• (A) Neurospora
• (B) Aspergillus
• (C) Griseofulvin
• (D) Lovastatin
  Answer: (D) Lovastatin

121. Which of the following are called placental mammals?

• (A) Prototheria
• (B) Metatheria
• (C) Eutheria
• (D) All of these
  Answer: (C) Eutheria

121. The attraction among water molecules, which holds water together, is called:

• (A) Tension
• (B) Cohesion
• (C) Adhesion
• (D) Imbibition
  Answer: (B) Cohesion

121. Pick the paratonic movement from the following:

• (A) Nastic
• (B) Growth
• (C) Turgor
• (D) Tactic
  Answer: (D) Tactic

121. It controls several automatic functions like breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure:

• (A) Midbrain
• (B) Medulla
• (C) Pons
• (D) Cerebellum
  Answer: (B) Medulla